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MEGA Missouri General Education Assessment (MoGEA) 2018-11-09T23:00:58+00:00

MEGA Missouri General Education Assessment (MoGEA)

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MEGA Missouri General Education Assessment (MoGEA)

MoGEA Quick Facts

MoGEA Reading Comprehension and Interpretation

MoGEA Mathematics

MoGEA Science and Social Studies

MoGEA Writing

MEGA Missouri General Education Assessment (MoGEA)

The Missouri General Education Assessment (MoGEA) measures a test-taker’s broad knowledge in these five areas: Reading, Writing, Math, Science, and Social Studies. In most cases, students entering a teacher preparation program in Missouri must take and pass the MoGEA.

You can take subtests individually, but you can only take the entire exam (all four subtests together) once. Any retakes (individual subtest) must be done after a 30-day waiting period.

Format: 

Cost:

$49: Entire exam (all four subtests)

$25: Individual subtest

Scoring:

Examinees must pass all four subtests. Passing scores are set individually by each educator preparation program in Missouri. Here are just a few:

Study time:

To pass the MoGEA, there is no set time to study. It depends on the strengths and weaknesses of the participant in relation to the skills covered on the test.

Next, plan a course of study by focusing on your weaknesses. The best way is to review the 240Tutoring materials.

What test-takers wish they would’ve known:

  • Test-takers tend to overestimate their abilities to perform well. Many students regret not putting more time and effort into preparing. Fortunately, it’s easy to avoid this mistake by using test preparation materials.
  • When answering the multiple-choice questions, you should read all possible answers before marking the correct one. You don’t want to miss out on the best answer by not reading all of the responses!
  • Always check your answer before moving to the next question. Many test-takers are surprised by how they’re able to find overlooked errors in their work by using this strategy.

Information and screenshots obtained from the Missouri Educator Gateway

Assessments website: http://www.mo.nesinc.com/Home.aspx

MoGEA: Reading Comprehension and Interpretation

Overview

You will have 75 minutes to answer 39 multiple-choice questions.

The Reading Comprehension and Interpretation subtest has 3 competencies:

  • Literal Comprehension (33%)
  • Inference and Interpretation (33%)
  • Critical Reasoning and Evaluation (34%)

So, let’s start with Literal Comprehension.

Literal Comprehension

This section tests your ability to identify the main idea of a text, decipher the meanings of words, figurative language, and connotative meanings, and choose the best summary or outline for a passage.

Let’s discuss some concepts that will more than likely appear on the test.

Main Idea

Finding a central idea or theme in a text is all about getting to the point. As you read, think about the “big picture” created by the details in the text in order to determine the author’s overall message. Is the author trying to make a general statement about life or allow you to understand a major concept?

You should be able to determine central ideas and themes, as well as describe how they develop throughout the course of the text. You must also analyze how details in the text support the main ideas and use details in the text to identify appropriate summaries.

Let’s take a moment to think about Aesop’s fable, The Crow and the Pitcher.

“A thirsty crow found a pitcher with a little water at the bottom. Unfortunately, the pitcher had a narrow neck and the crow couldn’t reach the water. However, the crow had an idea. He began dropping pebbles into the pitcher. With each pebble, the water rose higher. Eventually, the water rose high enough that the crow was able to drink.”

So, what central message about life is Aesop trying to get us to understand?

Aesop uses the details in the story to tell us that it is better to be determined and resourceful instead of accepting defeat. This overall message is the theme of The Crow and the Pitcher.

Connotative Meaning

A word may have both a connotative meaning and a denotative meaning.

Connotation refers to the positive or negative associations that most words naturally have. Denotation is the precise, literal definition of a word.

The following chart shows three words that have the same denotation, but

different connotations:

Authors often intentionally choose words with different connotations in order to affect the mood of the text or to show how they feel about a subject. How an author feels about a subject is his or her tone. Consider these statements:

“Dad probably will not buy that, because he is so cheap.”

“Dad probably will not buy that, because he is so frugal.”

Can you pick out the word with negative connotation? If you said cheap,

you’re right! Notice that the tone of the second sentence is much more pleasant.

Figurative Language

Literal language means exactly what it states. Figurative language, however, has a different meaning than what the words actually state. You know that if someone says, “I’m so hungry that I could eat a horse,” the person is using figurative language.

The person couldn’t, and hopefully wouldn’t, actually eat a horse. What the person means is that he or she is very hungry. While taking the Reading subtest, notice when figurative language is being used and determine what the author really means.

Inference and Interpretation

This section tests your ability to determine a writer’s opinion, tone, and purpose. You should be able to draw conclusions and to identify textual evidence upon which arguments are based. You will compare ideas in a text and how they relate to one another.

Here are some concepts that you may see on the test.

Writer’s Purpose

Simply put, the purpose of a piece of text is what the author hopes to achieve with his/her writing. It can be as simple as entertaining or informing an audience, or it can be to argue against a specific idea in order to persuade readers to act or think a certain way. An author can have more than one purpose for writing a passage.

Consider how an author writes about the topic to determine his or her purpose. For example, if the author’s purpose is to amuse the reader, the text might include jokes and use a silly or sarcastic tone.

How might this concept appear on the test? Take a look at this example:

For a long time, tofu was only found in specialty markets, but today tofu can be purchased in most supermarkets across the United States. It is made from the condensed milk of soybeans. Because it is high in protein, it often used as a meat substitute by vegetarians. Tofu also contains isoflavones, which may reduce the risk of cancer.

What is the author’s primary purpose?

 

  • The author writes to inform the reader about tofu. (correct)
  • The author writes to persuade the reader to become vegetarian.
  • The author writes to amuse the reader with a story about tofu.
  • The author writes to persuade the reader not to eat tofu.

Making Inferences

While you complete the Reading subtest, you’ll use your inferencing skills to draw conclusions based on what the text states and what you already know. Remember, authors don’t always explain everything to us – sometimes they give us clues and let us figure out concepts and situations.

Consider this passage:

Jaylen was soaked by the time he got home, and he was disappointed to find that he missed out on a delicious dinner. The tempting smell of lasagna still lingered in the air, but the dishes were already clean. He pulled off his wet boots and began to think about what to eat.

You can make a ton of inferences from this passage. For example, the author doesn’t state that it has been raining, but you know this from the details in the text, such as the wet boots. You can also infer that Jaylen is hungry and that he doesn’t live alone – unless he lives in a magical house which cooks and does the dishes!

Point of View

Point of view refers to the perspective from which a text is narrated. As you work through the Reading subtest, sometimes you will be asked about the viewpoint or opinions of a narrator. When considering the viewpoint from which a passage is written, ask yourself what reasoning and evidence a speaker uses to support ideas.

Think about this passage:

Greenville gets really hot in the summer. On top of that, all of the rainfall means that there are mosquitos buzzing around everywhere and everyone’s yard is covered in puddles. In the fall, it’s so much cooler and drier.

Based on the passage, the writer’s point of view is that Greenville is less pleasant in the summer than in the fall. The writer uses the information about mosquitos and puddles as evidence to support this belief.

Critical Reasoning and Evaluation

This section tests your ability to evaluate a writer’s reasoning and determine if it is relevant and sufficient to support the ideas in a text. You’ll identify literary devices and the reason for their inclusion; you’ll look for examples of bias.

Here are some things you may see on the test.

Fact versus Opinion

Think back to when we discussed point of view. Sometimes, the authors give opinionated statements instead of “sticking to the facts.” As you complete the test, be mindful of which statements are factual and which are just opinions.

Remember, a fact can be proven true. An opinion is an expression of someone’s feelings, and it cannot be proven. Here’s an example of how this might appear on the test:

Humans have used the oils from plants for thousands of years. For example, Egyptians anointed their bodies with perfumed oils. We still use plant oils today, and essential oils are one type of plant-based oil that is used in cosmetic and health products.

Essential oils are removed from plants by steam distillation or mechanical expression. The chemicals which compose each essential oil give it its scent. Lavender oil contains linalool, and this chemical contributes to the oil’s unique aroma. The best-smelling essential oils are lemon essential oil, lime essential oil, and cypress essential oil.

Which of the following statements from the passage most clearly expresses an opinion?

  1. The best-smelling essential oils are lemon essential oil, lime essential oil, and cypress essential oil.” (correct)
  2. “We still use plant oils today, and essential oils are one type of plant-based oil that is used in cosmetic and health products.”
  3. “Humans have used the oils from plants for thousands of years.”
  4. Lavender oil contains linalool, and this chemical contributes to the oil’s unique aroma.”

Supporting Evidence

Whether including factual or opinionated statements, writers usually use evidence to support their points. On the test, you’ll use your experience as a reader to decide which evidence supports which point and whether or not the evidence is strong and reasonable.

For example, take a look at this passage:

I have a terrific mother, but my brother, Will, is very annoying. Last week, my mother bought me a pair of shoes as a surprise. It was really irritating when Will borrowed the shoes without asking me and got them dirty by wearing them to a baseball game.

So which evidence supports what in the passage? The writer uses the fact that his mother bought him shoes to support the idea that his mother is a terrific mother. The idea that Will is very annoying is supported by the evidence that Will borrowed the shoes without permission and was careless with them.

Literary Devices

Some literary devices to be familiar with before taking the Reading subtest include personification, similes, metaphors, irony, and foreshadowing.

So, how might a literary device appear on the test? Let’s say that you see the statement: That boy can run as fast as a cheetah. Can you identify which literary devices are used in the statement?

Well, because the phrase includes extreme exaggeration, it is an example of hyperbole. The phrase is also an example of a simile, a comparison which uses “like” or “as.” The author uses these literary devices to let you know that the boy can run really fast!

And that’s some basic info about the Reading Comprehension and Interpretation subtest.

Now, let’s look at a few practice questions in each area to see how these concepts might actually appear on the real test.

MoGEA: Reading Comprehension and Interpretation
Practice Questions and Answers

Question 1

Willa Cather’s 1910 novel, O! Pioneers, follows a Swedish family of farmers in Nebraska. In this passage, John Bergson is dying and worries about what will become of his wife and young children. Alexandra is the oldest Bergson child.

Alexandra, her father often said to himself, was like her grandfather; which was his way of saying that she was intelligent. John Bergson’s father had been a shipbuilder, a man of considerable force and of some fortune. Late in life, he married a second time, a Stockholm woman of questionable character, much younger than he, who goaded him into every sort of extravagance. On the shipbuilder’s part, this marriage was an infatuation, the despairing folly of a powerful man who cannot bear to grow old. In a few years, his unprincipled wife warped the probity of a lifetime. He speculated, lost his own fortune and funds entrusted to him by poor seafaring men, and died disgraced, leaving his children nothing. But when all was said, he had come up from the sea himself, had built up a proud little business with no capital but his own skill and foresight, and had proved himself a man. In his daughter, John Bergson recognized the strength of will, and the simple direct way of thinking things out, that had characterized his father in his better days. He would much rather, of course, have seen this likeness in one of his sons, but it was not a question of choice. As he lay there day after day he had to accept the situation as it was and to be thankful that there was one among his children to whom he could entrust the future of his family and the possibilities of his hard-won land.

Drawing upon John Bergson’s reflections of his father, one can infer that:

  1. John’s bitterness about his father’s financial losses still haunts him.
  2. John’s own disappointment in himself is evident, as he lacks the character of his own father.
  3. John worries for the future of his family if his situation is left up to his sons, who lack the character of his father.
  4. John finds peace in remembering his father’s more enduring qualities as he sees them in Alexandra.

Correct answer: 4. The tone of the passage is one of acceptance. John Bergson reflects on his father’s better qualities as he sees them displayed in his own daughter, and knowing that, he can “accept the situation” and “entrust the future” to her.

Question 2

Excerpt from Inaugural Address by John F. Kennedy, January 20, 1961

1 “In your hands, my fellow citizens, more than in mine, will rest the final success or failure of our course. Since this country was founded, each generation of Americans has been summoned to give testimony to its national loyalty. The graves of young Americans who answered the call to service surround the globe.

2 Now the trumpet summons us again – not as a call to bear arms, though arms we need; not as a call to battle, though embattled we are – but a call to bear the burden of a long twilight struggle, year in and year out, ‘rejoicing in hope, patient in tribulation’- a struggle against the common enemies of man: tyranny, poverty, disease, and war itself.

3 Can we forge against these enemies a grand and global alliance, North and South, East and West, that can assure a more fruitful life for all mankind? Will you join in that historic effort?

4 In the long history of the world, only a few generations have been granted the role of defending freedom in its hour of maximum danger. I do not shrink from this responsibility – I welcome it. I do not believe that any of us would exchange places with any other people or any other generation. The energy, the faith, the devotion which we bring to this endeavor will light our country and all who serve it– and the glow from that fire can truly light the world.

5 And so, my fellow Americans: ask not what your country can do for you– ask what you can do for your country.

6 My fellow citizens of the world: ask not what America will do for you, but what together we can do for the freedom of man.

7 Finally, whether you are citizens of America or citizens of the world, ask of us the same high standards of strength and sacrifice which we ask of you. With a good conscience our only sure reward, with history the final judge of our deeds, let us go forth to lead the land we love, asking His blessing and His help, but knowing that here on earth God’s work must truly be our own.”

The writer’s purpose in this speech is best described as:

  1. congratulatory remarks regarding the current transition of power.
  2. a defamatory denunciation of global powers.
  3. a stirring and inspiring call to patriotism.
  4. a complaint against indolent citizens.

Correct answer: 3. This is the best answer. “Stirring and inspiring” best describe the effect this speech has on its intended audience, and “call” is certainly the purpose.

Question 3

The following is an excerpt from a speech delivered by Frederick Douglass to the International Council of Women in Washington, D.C., April 1888 on the topic of Women’s Suffrage.

All good causes are mutually helpful. The benefits accruing from this movement for the equal rights of woman are not confined or limited to woman only. They will be shared by every effort to promote the progress and welfare of mankind everywhere and in all ages. It was an example and a prophecy of what can be accomplished against strongly opposing forces, against time—hallowed abuses, against deeply entrenched error, against worldwide usage, and against the settled judgment of mankind, by a few earnest women, clad only in the panoply of truth, and determined to live and die in what they considered a righteous cause.

In the above passage, Douglass arrives at the logical conclusion that if women are given equal rights, then:

  1. many other good causes will benefit from this gain as well.
  2. a prophecy can come true.
  3. women won’t have to die for the cause anymore.
  4. these few earnest women can have the satisfaction of knowing their effort was not in vain.

Correct answer: 1. Douglass claims that “all good causes are mutually helpful”; in other words, by winning the cause of women’s rights, many other good causes will be won as well. Therefore, this is the best answer.

Question 4

Harold Washington’s acceptance speech. In 1983, Harold Washington was the first African American elected mayor of Chicago.

1 Tonight we are here. Tonight we are here to celebrate a resounding victory. We, we have fought a good fight. We have finished our course. And we have kept the faith. We fought that good fight. We fought it, with unseasoned weapons and with a phalanx of people who mostly have never been involved in a political campaign before. This has truly been a pilgrimage. Our government will be moving forward as well, including more people. And more kinds of people, than any government in the history of Chicago. Today… today… today, Chicago has seen the bright daybreak for this city and for perhaps this entire country. The whole nation is watching as Chicago is so powerful in this! Oh yes, they’re watching.  

2 Out of the crucible… Out of the crucible of this city’s most trying election, carried on the tide of the most massive voter turnout in Chicago’s history. Blacks. Whites. Hispanics. Jews. Gentiles. Protestant and Catholics of all stripes. Have joined hands to form a new democratic coalition. And… and to begin in this place a new democratic movement.

3 The talents and dreams of our citizens and neighborhoods will nourish our government the way it should be cherished and feed into the moving river of mankind. And we have kept the faith in ourselves as decent, caring people who gather together as a part of something greater than themselves. We never stopped believing that we were a part of something good and something that had never happened before.

4 We intend to revitalize and rebuild this city. To open its doors and be certain that its babies are healthy! And its old people are fed and well-housed. We intend, we intend that our city will grow again and bring prosperity to ALL of its citizens.

In paragraph 3, the speaker employs what figurative language device in the first sentence?

  1. Paradox
  2. Hyperbole
  3. Understatement
  4. Personification

Correct answer: 4. In the sentence, the “talents and dreams” of the people are “nourishing” and “feeding” the “river of mankind”. Here, Washington employs personification—he gives non human objects human qualities. He brings to life the people’s talents and dreams to show how they “feed” all mankind.

Question 5

We can learn more about the world by looking at maps than we can by traveling to every spot on the globe. They explain to us something about why the world is the way it is. For example, by looking at names of places, we can see which groups settled where and when. Looking at America East to West shows that the English colonized the east coast, naming cities New York and New London, while the Spanish colonized the southwest, naming cities Los Angeles and San Diego. In Africa, Liberia must have had an American influence, because the capital of Monrovia was named for James Monroe. In Egypt, a place called Alexandria proves that Alexander the Great was there. All of this is found simply by perusing a map and studying the details. To open up an atlas, then, is to open up a world of history.

Which of the following statements from the passage would be classified as an opinion?

  1. “The English colonized the East Coast, naming cities New York and New London.”
  2. “Liberia must have had an American influence, because the capital of Monrovia was named for James Monroe.”
  3. “The Spanish colonized the southwest, naming cities Los Angeles and San Diego.”
  4. “We can learn more about the world by looking at maps than we can by traveling to every spot on the globe.”

Correct answer: 4. “We can learn more about the world…” is correct. An opinion is defined as a view, judgment, or appraisal formed in the mind about a particular matter. In this passage, the author uses facts to back up the opinion that, when learning about the world, maps are more beneficial than traveling. Others might hold a different opinion, believing that firsthand knowledge and experience are more beneficial.

Use the following reading passage to answer questions 6-9.

If you are a citizen of the United States, you will likely be called to serve on a jury at some point. A jury is a group of ordinary citizens, randomly selected from a list of registered voters and drivers, who listen to a court case and decide which side wins.

The courts officially call this responsibility “jury service,” and it is an opportunity to serve your country. Many agree that it is important for ordinary citizens to be part of the court system because citizens must have a voice in a democracy. Because the government wants citizens to serve, it won’t allow your boss to penalize you if you must miss work for jury service. In addition, the government even pays you for the days you serve.

However, people often call this responsibility “jury duty.” It is something you are required to do and it can present difficulties. Even though you are allowed to be away from your job, you may be responsible for the work you missed. For parents who stay home with young children, there is the complication of needing childcare. Some think that the payment (anywhere from two to 50 dollars per day, depending on the state) is not enough to make jury duty worth the hassle.

Whether citizens view being a juror as an opportunity or an inconvenience, one day you will probably be called to serve. Since it is a crime to avoid serving on a jury, you might as well enjoy learning about the court system.

Question 6

Paragraph 2 of the selection is mainly concerned with which of the following?

  1. Defining the word “jury”
  2. Explaining why the government pays jurors
  3. Presenting the positive aspects of jury service
  4. Presenting the negative aspects of jury service

Correct answer: 3. ”Positive aspects” is correct. The author mentions several positive aspects of serving on a jury, including serving your country, being a voice in a democracy, and getting paid for service.

Question 7

Which of the following best states the main idea of paragraph 3 of the selection?

  1. Jury duty has several positive aspects
  2. The struggle for jurors who have children
  3. The necessity of raising juror pay
  4. Jury duty has several negative aspects

Correct answer: 4. ”Negative aspects” is correct. The author mentions several negative aspects of serving on a jury, including making up work missed, securing childcare, and low pay for service.

Question 8

According to the information presented in the selection, it is reasonable to infer that the phrases “jury service” and “jury duty” serve to:

  1. present contrasting aspects of the jury experience.
  2. present negative aspects of the jury experience.
  3. present the reasons why jury service is inevitable.
  4. present positive aspects of the jury experience.

Correct answer: 1. “Contrasting aspects” is correct. The term “jury service” implies that the experience is positive, while the term “jury duty” implies that the experience is negative. When the two are paired, the author creates a contrast between the two.

Question 9

Which of the following best supports the author’s view that jury service is a positive opportunity?

  1. Jurors can serve their country and have a voice in a democracy
  2. You will likely be called to serve on a jury
  3. It is a crime to avoid serving on a jury
  4. Jurors may have to make up work that they miss when serving

Correct answer: 1. ”Jurors can serve their country…” is correct, as it is the only answer choice that presents jury service as positive.

Question 10

Have you ever seen a homeless person? Chances are, you have. Homelessness is an issue that has become an epidemic, affecting people of every age and in every country. This issue is especially evident in societies where people live a hand-to-mouth existence, living from paycheck to paycheck. If you walk down the street in many big cities in the United States, you might notice people sleeping on the sidewalk or begging for food or money. These individuals are very visible to passersby, and it is difficult to ignore them.

However, there are also homeless people who do not sleep on the streets. They are not as visible to the public eye, but they are also homeless. These people often spend their nights sleeping in shelters, which provide food, rooms, and often a variety of social services (like daycare). We might not see these people on the streets, but it does not mean that they aren’t suffering.

The author uses the question “Have you ever seen a homeless person?” to begin the selection in order to:

  1. challenge preconceived ideas about homelessness.
  2. establish the author’s position on homelessness.
  3. connect with the reader on a topic he assumes they are familiar with.
  4. prompt readers to take a specific action.

Correct answer: 3. This is correct. By opening with a rhetorical question, the author directly addresses the reader, simultaneously engaging the reader and introducing the topic of the selection. The next line of the passage, “chances are, you have,” provides a response to his question.

Getting the Help You Need

And if this seems like a lot of information, it’s because it is. This is a test that decides if you can teach the next generation of leaders. But if you’re feeling overwhelmed, don’t be.

Go to 240tutoring.com and sign up for our MoGEA study guide.

You see, our study guides are filled with hundreds of pages of instructional content and hundreds of authentic practice questions that are going to walk you through the exact concepts we’re talking about in this video in much more depth and detail. And it takes you from knowing what’s on the test to knowing what you need to know to be successful on the test and equipping you with that information so that you can be successful when you take this test.

So, if at any point, you’re just overwhelmed or you want to save a lot of time and a lot of headaches, hop over to 240tutoring.com, get the Praxis Elementary Education 5001 study guide, and make sure you’re prepared today. 

Get the Study Guide

MoGEA: Mathematics

Overview

You will have 75 minutes to answer 40 multiple-choice questions.

The Mathematics subtest has 3 competencies:

  • Numbers and Algebra (50%)
  • Measurement and Geometry (25%)
  • Statistics and Data Analysis (25%)

So, let’s start with Numbers and Algebra.

Numbers and Algebra

This section tests your knowledge of rational numbers, linear equations, and inequalities. You’ll demonstrate your ability to divide fractions and use reasoning to solve real-world problems.

Let’s discuss some concepts that will more than likely appear on the test.

Dividing Fractions

First, we’ll review dividing fractions by whole numbers, then we’ll take a look at how to divide fractions by fractions.

When dividing a fraction by a whole number, multiply the bottom number (denominator) of the fraction by the whole number.

For example, let’s say that you need to divide 12 by 3:

12/ 3 = ?

You’ll multiply the whole number and the denominator:

12 x 3 = 16

Note that you may need to simplify your answer. For example, 412 might need to be simplified to 13 .

Dividing Fractions by Fractions

When given a question that asks you to divide one fraction by another fraction, keep in mind that dividing fractions is just multiplying fractions by their reciprocals. Once your multiplication problem is set up, you will multiply your numerators then your denominators. What might this look like on the test? Here’s an example:


96 / 24

First, you’ll set up your multiplication problem:

96 x 42

And multiply to find your answer:

3612 or 3

Linear Equations and Inequalities

These questions will evaluate your ability to interpret and solve inequalities and use linear equations. In order to be successful, you must apply arithmetic to algebraic expressions and use operations to generate equivalent expressions.

Here’s an example of the type of problem that you might find on the test:

Solve for x:

4x – 2 = 2x + 24

To solve this equation, you would bring like terms to one side:

4x – 2x = 2 + 24

Add and subtract on each side:

2x = 26

And divide each side by 2 to find the value of x:

x = 13

Geometric Sequences

In geometric sequences, the ratio between terms is always the same. That ratio is called the common ratio. For example, consider this sequence:

1, 2, 4, 8…

In this example, the common ratio is 2. Each consecutive number in the sequence is the previous number multiplied by 2. Try out this question:

What is the next term in the sequence 12 , 2, 8…?

If you answered 32, you’re right! Each term in the sequence is multiplied by 4 in order to form the next term. Since 8 x 4 = 32, 32 is the next term.

Measurement and Geometry

This section tests your knowledge of geometrical figures, such as circles and triangles. You’ll use the Pythagorean theorem, as well as formulas for circumference and area to solve real-world problems.

Here is a concept that you may see on the test.

Pythagorean Theorem

Questions about the Pythagorean theorem will test your knowledge of right triangles and your ability to work with shapes to solve equations, make comparisons, and draw conclusions.

According to this theorem, side c is the side of the triangle opposite the right angle; side a and side b are the other two sides of the right triangle. You will use the Pythagorean equation (a2 + b2 = c2), to solve related questions.

Here’s an example of what a related question might look like on the test:

Your friend cuts a sandwich into 2 right triangles. Your friend gives you half of the sandwich, so you now have 1 right triangle. Side a is 4 inches and side b is 5 inches. If side c is the hypotenuse, what is the length of side c?

To solve this problem, just plug the numbers into the Pythagorean equation:

(42 + 52 = c2)

Apply the exponents:

(16 + 25 = c2)

Add the values on the left:

(41 = c2)

And find the square root of c:

(6.4 = c)

So, the hypotenuse of your half of the sandwich must be 6.4 inches!

Circumference

On the test, you’ll work with circles and calculate their circumferences and surface area. To calculate the circumference of a circle, use the formula C = 2πr. The “r” represents the radius, a segment that connects the center of the circle to the edge of the circle.

How might this appear on the test?

You have a circular tub with a radius of 4 feet. What is the circumference of the tub?

  • 25.13 ft. (correct)
  • 50.27 ft.
  • 30.17 ft.
  • 21.22 ft.

In order to solve the given problem, just plug the value of the radius into the formula (C = 2πr) and multiply. C = 2πr → C = 2π4 → C = 25.13 ft.

Area of a Triangle

The formula to find the area of a triangle is A =12 hb. In other words, the area is the height multiplied by the base then divided by 2. Wondering how this might look on the test? Consider this problem:

The area of a triangle = 1/2 hb, so the area of this triangle is 1/2 (6 x 5) or 1/2 (30).

When you divide 30 in half, you get 15. The area of the triangle is 15 units2.

Statistics and Data Analysis

In order to answer questions about statistics and data analysis, you’ll review charts and graphs. You’ll answer questions about central tendency based on the data you are given, and you’ll also use sample data to make inferences.

Here are concepts that you may see on the test.

Measures of Central Tendency

The Mathematics subtest will ask questions about measures of central tendency, such as mean, median, and mode. For example, take a look at the following question:

This list shows the price of cartons of orange juice in a store last year:
$3.50, $3.55, $4.00, $4.25, $4.75

This is the current list of prices for the juice:
$3.50, $3.55, $4.00, $4.25, $9.28

In the second list, which price is the outlier? Does the outlier change the mean, the median, or the mode?

In this example, the $9.25 price is the outlier, because it is drastically different from the other prices. The outlier does not affect the mode (frequency of appearance) of the prices. It also does not affect the median price because the number of prices remains the same on both lists. It does, however, affect the mean price.

The mean price of the juices in the first list is $4.01, and the mean price of juices in the second list is $4.90. You can find the mean of each list by adding the price of each carton and dividing the sum by the number of items in the list (5).

Sampling

While taking the Mathematics subtest, you will make inferences about populations by analyzing random samples. Take a look at this example question:

This year, 308 people have signed up for the library’s summer reading program. Each participant will receive a notebook with the library’s logo as a gift. A random sample of library patrons responded to a survey by selecting the color of notebook which they would each prefer.

Results:

What is the most reasonable estimate for the number of this summer’s participants who will want a purple notebook?

You can estimate this number by multiplying the total population size (308) by the proportion of camp participants in the sample who would prefer a purple notebook.

Estimate = population size (308) × sample proportion

How can you find the sample proportion? Divide the number of sampled people who prefer purple by the total number of sampled people (15/60).

Estimate = 308 x1560

After multiplying, your answer will be 77. This is the most reasonable estimate for the number of patrons who will want a purple notebook as a participation prize.

And that’s some basic info about the Mathematics subtest.

Now, let’s look at a few practice questions in each area to see how these concepts might actually appear on the real test.

MoGEA: Mathematics Practice Questions and Answers

Question 1

On a particular day, the temperature at 8am was 66°F and at 2 p.m. it was 78°F. If the temperature increased by a constant rate every hour from 8 a.m. to 2 p.m. that day, what was the temperature at noon?

  1. 76°F
  2. 72°F
  3. 74°F
  4. 70°F

Correct answer: 3. The temperature increased 12°F (78 – 66) at a constant rate over 6 hours (8 a.m. to 2 p.m.). Therefore, the number of degrees it must have increased each hour is 12/6 = 2. Noon is 4 hours after 8 a.m., and so 2°F per hour for 4 hours means an increase of 8°F after 8 a.m.’s 66°F temperature. 66°F + 8°F = 74°F. Noon could also be thought of as 2 hours before 2 p.m., and so 2 hours × 2°F per hour = 4°F of change from the 2 p.m. temperature of 78°F. 78°F – 4°F = 74°F.

Question 2

Which of the following expressions is equivalent to a/3 + b/5?

  1. (a + b)/8
  2. (5a + 3b)/15
  3. (5a + 3b)/30
  4. (3a + 5b)/15

Correct answer: 1. To add fractions, a common denominator must be used. In this case, the denominators of “3” and “5” are relatively prime (have no common factors except for 1). Therefore, the ideal common denominator for “3” and “5” is the product of 3 × 5, which is 15. In order to scale the fraction a/3 up to have a denominator of 15, that fraction must be multiplied by 5/5, resulting in 5a/15. In order to scale the fraction b/5 up to have a denominator of 15, the fraction must be multiplied by 3/3, resulting in 3b/15. Finally, the two fractions that now share a denominator of 15 can be added straight across the numerators while the denominator of the sum remains 15: 5a/15 + 3b/15 = (5a + 3b)/15.

Question 3

Petra’s employer is thrilled with Petra’s performance at work this year and so she offered Petra a bonus of x dollars. The majority of Petra’s bonus, y, will be given to her in a one-time sum at an award ceremony this Friday, and the remainder will be awarded on a monthly basis for m months until the total amount, x, is paid out by the end of the year. Which of the following algebraic expressions best represents the amount of money Petra can expect to see added to her monthly paychecks in the coming months?

  1.  (x-y)/m
  2.  x/m – y
  3.  y/m – x
  4.  (y-x)/m

Correct answer: 1. The total amount of Petra’s bonus is x dollars. Of that total, Petra will receive y dollars at the award ceremony. The difference between the total bonus and the amount received at the ceremony, x – y, will be given in equal increments over the coming m months. Therefore, the difference, x – y, will be divided by m so that each installment of the remainder of the bonus will be an equal amount. Therefore, the correct answer divides x – y by m: (x-y)/m, in order to express the amount of money that Petra will see added to her monthly paychecks until the end of the year.

Question 4

The inequality statement, 9x – 8 > 24 – 7x, can be fully simplified to which expression?

  1. x > 2
  2. x > 16
  3. x < 2
  4. x < 16

Correct answer: 1. Simplification of the expression 9x – 8 > 24 – 7x can begin in multiple ways, but the simplest is to add 7x to each side. Adding a quantity never causes a change in direction of the inequality sign, so the resulting statement is 16x – 8 > 24. Next, 8 can be added to each side of the problem, resulting in 16x > 32. Finally, x will be isolated when 16 is divided from each side. Division by a positive number does not result in a change in the direction of the inequality sign, and so the final answer is x > 2.

Question 5

Which of the following expressions (in square units) is the most reasonable estimate for the area of the circle in the graph shown above?

  1. 128
  2. 27
  3. 41
  4. 23

Correct answer: 3. The area, A, of a circle with radius r is found using the formula A = πr². The radius of the circle in the diagram must be estimated as slightly larger than halfway between 3 and 4 units. Radius equals 3.6 is a reasonable approximation. Using 3.6 for r and using 3.14 as a decimal approximation for the irrational number π in the area formula leads to the calculation of A = 3.14(3.6)². Following the order of operations leads to a simplified equation of A = 3.14(12.96) and then A = 40.6944. The value 40.6944 becomes 41 when rounded to the nearest whole number because the tenths place digit is 6 (which is at least 5, and so requires rounding up).

Question 6

In the parallelogram above, what is the measure of angle G?

  1. 100°
  2. 220°
  3. 120°
  4. 110°

Correct answer: 1.  Consecutive angles in a parallelogram are supplementary to each other. The measure of angle H is known to be 80°. Therefore, the measure of angle G + the measure of angle H = 180°. A substitution can be made so that the statement becomes “the measure of angle G + 80° = 100°”. This equation is solved by subtracting 80° on each side. Therefore, the measure of angle G must be 100° (180° – 80°= 100°).

Question 7

Yolanda is getting a new rug for her room. Her old rectangular rug is 5 ft by 7 ft. Her new rug is circular with a diameter of 7 ft. How is the size of the new rug related to the size of the old one?

  1. The new rug is about 3.5 ft² larger than the old one
  2. The new rug is about 4.5 ft² smaller than the old one
  3. The new rug is about 4.5 ft² larger than the old one
  4. The new rug is about 3.5 ft² smaller than the old one

Correct answer: 1. The size of each of Yolanda’s rugs is determined by the rug’s area. The area for a rectangle is found by multiplying length and width (or base and height) of the rectangle. Therefore, Yolanda’s original rectangular rug has an area of 7 x 5 = 35 ft². The area of a circle is found using the formula A = πr², where A is the area and r is the radius of the circle. Because the diameter of a circle is twice the radius, the radius of Yolanda’s new circular rug must be 7 × ½ = 3.5 feet. Therefore, the area of Yolanda’s new rug will be A= π(3.5)² = π(12.25) ≈ 38.5 ft². The answer choices describing the relationships between the sizes of the rugs are all assessments of the difference in square footage of the two rugs. Therefore, subtraction should be applied. Because the new rug’s measurement of ~38.5 ft² is larger than the old rug’s 35 ft², the answer is that the new rug is about 38.5 – 35 = 3.5 square feet larger than the old one.

Question 8

7.5, 7.2, 7.1, 8.0, 7.9, 8.3, 7.5, 6.9, 8.2, 7.6

Aaron runs on a treadmill for an hour each day. He recorded the number of miles completed on each run for the last ten days. The length of each run, in miles, is given above. What is the range of the length of Aaron’s runs during this period, in miles?

  1.  0.1
  2.  1.6
  3.  1.4
  4.  7.5

Correct answer: 3. To find the range of the length of Aaron’s runs, one strategy would be to order the list of the lengths given from least to greatest. The ordered list is: 6.9, 7.1, 7.2, 7.5, 7.5, 7.6, 7.9, 8.0, 8.2, 8.3. From this list, it is clear that Aaron’s shortest run was 6.9 miles and his longest run was 8.3 miles. The range of a set of data is the difference between the highest and lowest values in the set, and so 8.3 – 6.9 is calculated to get 1.4, the range of the lengths of Aaron’s runs for this ten day time period.

Question 9

The scatter plot above suggests a relationship between x and y. Which of the following statements best describes this relationship?

  1. As x increases, y decreases
  2. As x increases, y increases
  3. No trend can be discerned
  4. As x increases, y remains constant

Correct answer: 2. The left-most numbers on the x-axis show the lowest x-values. The values for x increase as the graph moves to the right. Therefore, to best analyze the trend of what happens to y as the values of x increase, the dots on the graph should be viewed from the left to the right. Dots on this scatter plot are low to the left and high toward the right. Therefore, as x increases (moves from left to right), y also increases (moves from low to high).

Question 10

The range and median of 20 measurements were 3 and 16 respectively. If each measurement were increased by 5 units, which of the following statements about the modified data would be true?

  1. The range would stay the same, but the median would increase by 5 units
  2. Both assessments of the data will stay the same
  3. The median would stay the same, but the range would increase by 5 units
  4. Both assessments of the data would increase by 5 units

Correct answer: 1. Range is the difference between the highest data value and the lowest. If all measurements in the data set were increased by 5 units, the highest and lowest pieces of data would each be 5 units above their previous value, but they would be the same distance from each other as they were originally. Accordingly, the range would stay the same if all data were increased by the same amount. The median of a set of data is the middle value when all of the data is ordered from least to greatest (if there is an odd number of data points – in this case, the median would be the mean of the two middle data values because this data set has 20 measurements in it, an even quantity). If each value in the data set is increased by 5 units, the middle value(s) will also be increased by 5 units, and so the median would increase by 5 units. Therefore, the correct answer is that after each value in the set of 20 measurements was increased by 5 units, the range would stay the same while the median would increase by 5 units.

Getting the Help You Need

And if this seems like a lot of information, it’s because it is. This is a test that decides if you can teach the next generation of leaders. But if you’re feeling overwhelmed, don’t be.

Go to 240tutoring.com and sign up for our MoGEA study guide.

You see, our study guides are filled with hundreds of pages of instructional content and hundreds of authentic practice questions that are going to walk you through the exact concepts we’re talking about in this video in much more depth and detail. And it takes you from knowing what’s on the test to knowing what you need to know to be successful on the test and equipping you with that information so that you can be successful when you take this test.

So, if at any point, you’re just overwhelmed or you want to save a lot of time and a lot of headaches, hop over to 240tutoring.com, get the Praxis Elementary Education 5001 study guide, and make sure you’re prepared today. 

Get the Study Guide

MoGEA: Science and Social Studies

Overview

You will have 60 minutes to answer 40 multiple-choice questions.

The Science and Social Studies subtest has 4 standards:

  • Fundamental Scientific Concepts (25%)
  • Science Inquiry and Literacy Skills (25%)
  • Fundamental Social Studies Concepts (25%)
  • Social Studies Inquiry and Literacy Skills (25%)

So, let’s start with Fundamental Scientific Concepts.

Fundamental Scientific Concepts

This section tests your knowledge on Earth science, physical sciences, and life sciences. You’ll answer questions related to life cycles, force, motion, and the water cycle.

Here are some concepts that you may see on the test.

Life Cycles

A life cycle is a series of stages through which an organism passes during its lifetime. For example, a frog begins life as an egg and then transforms into a tadpole. Test out your knowledge with the following question:

Which of the following is the third stage of the butterfly life cycle?

A. Egg
B. Caterpillar
C. Butterfly
D. Chrysalis

The answer to the question is D, chrysalis. The stages of the butterfly life cycle in order are: egg, caterpillar, chrysalis, and butterfly.

 

Force and Motion

Without force, or if forces are perfectly balanced, an object will either stay still or continue to move at exactly the same speed. Unbalanced forces, however, cause changes in the speed of an object. This includes changing the speed of an object from completely stationary to moving.

Consider Newton’s Law: F = ma (net force is equivalent to the mass of an object multiplied by its acceleration):A 1.13 kg ball rolls forward. What information do you need to determine the net force on the ball?

You would need to know the acceleration rate of the ball. Then, you could multiply the rate by 1.13 to determine the net force.

Water Cycle

The water cycle includes the processes by which water circulates among the Earth’s oceans, atmosphere, and land. It involves precipitation, drainage, evaporation, and transpiration.

What might this concept look like on the test? Consider the following question:

Water evaporates from the leaves of a sunflower plant. This is an example of the _____ component of the water cycle.

 

  1. transpiration (correct)
    B. precipitation
    C. evaporation
    D. drainage

As water leaves a plant and is released into the atmosphere, it transpires!

Science Inquiry and Literacy Skills

This section tests your knowledge on basic scientific theories and laws, the scientific method, and inquiry-based learning. You’ll evaluate scientific evidence to come to conclusions and provide evidence of understanding basic scientific terms.

 

Here are some concepts that you may see on the test.

 

Scientific Method

The Scientific Method includes the following steps:

  1. Ask a question.
  2. Conduct background research.
  3. Form a hypothesis.
  4. Design and perform an experiment,
  5. Record and analyze data.
  6. Conclude whether to accept or reject hypothesis.

Let’s say a researcher describes an educated guess she has about how a stimulus will affect an organism. Which step of the scientific method is she completing? She’s forming a hypothesis!

 

Inquiry-Based Learning

Inquiry-based learning allows students to learn via questions, problems, and scenarios. With inquiry-based learning, students aren’t just presented with facts. Take a look at this example question:

Mrs. Jones and her class are studying soybean plants. Mrs. Jones designs several activities for her students. Which of the following activities is the best example of inquiry-based learning?

  1. Mrs. Jones asks each member of the class to form a hypothesis about how a seedling will respond when given milk instead of water. (correct)
    B. Mrs. Jones distributes worksheets which compare the life of soybeans to the life of cucumbers.
    C. Mrs. Jones directs her class to a web page which includes a list of uses for soy.
    D. Mrs. Jones asks her class to read and summarize a passage about growing crops.

Fundamental Social Studies Concepts

This section tests your knowledge on historical, geographical, economical, and cultural concepts. You’ll be asked questions about socialization, opportunity cost, and the way in which humans relate to their environment.

Here are some concepts that you may see on the test.

Human-Environment Interaction

There are three types of human-environment interaction. The first type is how humans depend on the environment. Humans depend on the environment for shelter, food, and water.

The second type of human-environment interaction is how humans modify the environment. For example, humans can change the shape of the land in order to farm.

The third type of human-environment interaction is the way humans adapt to the environment. For example, in cold climates, humans wear clothing to stay warm.

Which of the following options is an example of how humans modify the environment?

  1. Humans build dams to prevent flooding. (correct)
  2.  Humans seek shelter when it rains.
  3.  Humans drink water to stay hydrated.
  4.  Humans eat fruit and vegetables to obtain fiber.

In the example question, the first option is correct. The second option gives an example of how humans adapt to the environment. The third and fourth options show ways in which humans depend on the environment.

Opportunity Cost

Opportunity cost is an important concept in economics. It relates to the basic relationship between scarcity and choice. When an individual or business makes a choice and gives up other options, the individual or business experiences an opportunity cost.

For example, imagine going to an ice cream store where each flavor costs the same amount of money per scoop. You usually choose a scoop of chocolate ice cream, but today you choose a scoop of vanilla ice cream.

So, what’s the opportunity cost? The vanilla ice cream does not cost you any extra money, but it does cost you the experience of eating the chocolate ice cream. Missing out on that experience is the opportunity cost.

When asked to find the opportunity cost on the test, just look for what an individual or business loses when a choice is made.

Socialization

When individuals adapt to societal norms, they experience socialization. Socialization is important because it affects an individual’s ability to relate to other humans. Test your knowledge of this concept with the following question:

Which of the following options is NOT an example of socialization?

  1. An individual chooses what to eat for dinner. (correct)
  2.  A parent teaches a child not to yell in public.
  3.  A traveler discovers that a gesture is considered impolite.
  4.  A new yoga student learns that it is not acceptable to speak during a session.

When looking for examples of socialization, look for how people modify their behaviors in social settings. Socialization is most commonly experienced by children and people who are in new social settings.

Social Studies Inquiry and Literacy Skills

This section will test your ability to ask relevant questions, conduct research, and evaluate sources. You will analyze content from multiple sources to find central ideas and determine whether any of the sources are biased.

Here are some concepts that you may see on the test.

Types of Bias

There are 9 types of bias in research. Bias occurs when humans intentionally or accidentally affect or misrepresent results. Let’s take a look at each type:

  • Acquiescence bias: This type of bias is also called friendliness bias. It occurs when a respondent has the tendency to agree with whatever he or she is presented with.
  • Social desirability bias: This bias occurs when a respondent reacts in a way that he or she thinks will lead to being liked.
  • Habituation: Respondents will sometimes provide the same answers to questions which are worded similarly. This is because people’s brains have a tendency to go on “autopilot.”
  • Sponsor bias: If a respondent knows or suspects the sponsor of the research, his or her feelings about the sponsor might affect his or her answers.
  • Confirmation bias: When a researcher forms a belief and uses the results of the research to confirm that belief instead of remaining objective, confirmation bias occurs.
  • Culture bias: An individual’s culture affects the way in which he or she perceives results, relationships, and situations.
  • Question-order bias: Survey questions can affect the way in which respondents answer subsequent questions. This is because the ideas presented in questions can impact an individual’s thoughts and feelings.
  • Wording bias: This type of bias occurs when a researcher elaborates on or summarizes a respondent’s answers. By doing this, the researcher puts the results of a study or survey in his or her own words instead of the respondent’s words. Therefore, the researcher is not accurately reporting results.
  • The halo effect: People have a tendency to see something or someone with a single positive attribute as completely positive. Both researchers and study participants can make this generalization and affect the results.

How might bias look in real life? Let’s say that a customer is asked about the service at a local restaurant. The customer might say that the service at the restaurant is excellent because the last time he went, he was very impressed by the waiter.

If the customer thinks more deeply about his response, however, he might realize that the service is usually average or even just below average. This is an example of the halo effect. The customer allowed one positive experience to affect his overall attitude towards the restaurant.

When reading texts on the test, be sure to watch out for bias. If you are reading a research study or an article, ask yourself whether human experiences and opinions have affected the “facts.”

Primary and Secondary Sources

You should be able to differentiate between primary and secondary sources and gather and analyze information from both. If you’ve forgotten the difference between these two types of sources, don’t worry – here’s a quick review:

Primary sources are first-hand accounts of a topic. Secondary sources are any sources that are not primary sources. Try out the following question:

Which of the following sources is an example of a primary source?

  • Anne Frank’s diary
  • A non-fiction book about the Revolutionary War
  • A journal article about Native Americans during WWII
  • An ebook about famous works of art

If you chose the first option, you are correct! Anne Frank’s diary is a first-hand account of events. The other options are second-hand accounts of events and works.

Keep in mind that secondary sources can be based on primary sources or on other secondary sources. A book about Anne Frank’s diary would be a secondary source based on a primary source. A magazine review of that book would be a secondary source based on a secondary source.

And that’s some basic info about the Science and Social Studies subtest.

Now, let’s look at a few practice questions in each area to see how these concepts might actually appear on the real test.

MoGEA: Science and Social Studies Practice Questions and Answers

Question 1

A scientist is performing an experiment to determine the conductivity of a specific substance. Which of the following actions would increase the reliability of the results?

  1. Testing multiple substances
  2. Recording the results of repeated experiments
  3. Using a variety of materials to test the conductivity of the substance
  4. Predicting the outcome of the experiment

Correct answer: 2. Testing different substances changes the variable and would not provide accurate results. Using a variety of materials to test the conductivity of a specific substance would provide accurate results; however, the reliability of the experiment would be poor with only one trial. Experiments are conducted to confirm results; one should never predict the results and use the prediction as a basis for future work without first confirming the prediction.

Question 2

Mr. Orlando is teaching a unit about density. He would like students to practice measuring the density of various objects. Which of the following lists of equipment should Mr. Orlando provide to his students?

  1. A microscope, beaker, and eye dropper
  2. A thermometer, a Bunsen burner, and a beaker
  3. A ruler, a rubber ball, and a tape measure
  4. A graduated cylinder and a balance

Correct answer: 4. Density is the relationship between the mass of a substance and its volume. A graduated cylinder will help the student measure volume and a balance will help the student measure mass.

Question 3

The earth is divided into four layers:  the crust, the mantle, the outer core, and the:

  1. inner core
  2. outer-inner core
  3. middle core
  4. crustal core

Correct answer: 1. The earth’s four layers are the crust, the mantle, the outer core, and the inner core.

Question 4

To complete the life cycle, dead plants and animals must be broken down to return nutrients to the soil. Which organisms complete this process of the food chain?

  1. Producers
  2. Decomposers
  3. Prey
  4. Predators

Correct answer: 2. Dead and decaying plants and animals are the sources of nutrients in the soil. Decomposers break down the tissue of dead plants and animals, returning the nutrients to the soil. Predators hunt for prey. Producers make their own food.

Question 5

Which of the following would be the best explanation for why motion occurs?

  1. Motion occurs when an object’s physical position changes due to having equal forces acting on it
  2. Motion occurs when an object’s physical position changes due to unbalanced forces acting on the object
  3. Motion occurs when an object’s physical position changes due to the object’s mass equaling the amount of force being applied to it
  4. Motion occurs when an object’s physical position changes due to a change in density

Correct answer: 2. Motion occurs when an object changes its physical position because unbalanced forces are acting on it. Unbalanced forces result in motion because the forces acting on the object have different magnitudes. For example, if you push a pen across a desk, the force acting on one side of the pen is not equal to the force acting on the opposite side of the pen, therefore the pen moves.

Question 6

Mr. Everett is having his students research a historical figure and present their research to the class in a ten-minute presentation. Which of the following resources would be the best primary resources to begin with?

  1. A current newspaper
  2. A biography
  3. An autobiography
  4. A textbook

Correct answer: 3. An autobiographical study is work done in the author’s own words and is a primary source. This is the best starting point as the student will be exposed to the closest source for events in the figure’s life.

Question 7

A social studies teacher asks her students to research the Lewis and Clark Expedition and identify new things that Lewis and Clark might have encountered when they first explored the terrain. What would be the best first step in the research process?

  1. Checkout the Encyclopedia Americana
  2. Read about it in the textbook
  3. Go online and checkout the WEB
  4. Locate the journals of Lewis and Clark

Correct answer: 4. The use of an autobiography would be the best option as it is the most reliable firsthand account of a situation.

Question 8

Mr. Parretto wants to encourage his students to identify bias in the media. He presents the class with the following excerpt from the school newspaper:

“The school board made the decision on Thursday night to cut the library’s media budget. The budget cuts will affect the library’s ability to purchase new audio/visual equipment and could result in a reduction of hours for student workers. One student worker was quoted saying, “The budget cut will hurt students trying to make money after school. I don’t know where else I can find a job.” The judgment was pronounced Thursday night in a vote of 7-2. The budget cuts to the library are expected to prevent further cuts to athletic departments.”

Which of the following best identifies the form of bias in the newspaper article?

  1. Negativity bias
  2. Framing bias
  3. No bias is presented
  4. Confirmation bias

Correct answer: 1. This is the correct answer. Negativity bias occurs when the focus of a piece focuses only, or predominantly, on the negative aspects without regard to positive aspects. The excerpt focuses only on the negative aspects of the budget cuts and barely mentions that it was to save the athletic department. The article does not mention how students with saved after-school programs feel about the budget cuts.

Question 9

Timmy and John are two second-grade students working together on a group project. The project requires one student to cut out magazine pictures of forests while the other student organizes them in a book. Timmy and John decide that since Timmy can cut faster than John, and John is better at organizing than Timmy, then Timmy will cut the pictures and John will organize the pictures. Which of the following economic principles can be observed during this scenario?

  1.  Opportunity cost
  2.  Comparative advantage
  3.  Monopolistic competition
  4.  Scarcity

Correct answer: 2. Comparative advantage refers to the idea that a specific person, people, or geographic area had an advantage in the production process of a good. For example, the southern colonies were better suited at cotton and tobacco production than the northern colonies; the southern colonies had an economic advantage in the production of cotton and tobacco.

Question 10

Which of the following statements best describes the role of oral storytelling among families and cultures around the world? 

  1. Oral traditions are mostly used in religious ceremonies to further particular concepts and to discredit concepts presented by other religions
  2. Stories are the primary means that cultures today interact and represent themselves with one another
  3. Oral traditions communicate cultural values and practices to others
  4. Oral traditions have been marginalized and made unimportant in most cultures due to the rise of new technologies

Correct answer: 3. This is correct because the family unit uses storytelling to convey knowledge about culture and society.

Getting the Help You Need

And if this seems like a lot of information, it’s because it is. This is a test that decides if you can teach the next generation of leaders. But if you’re feeling overwhelmed, don’t be.

Go to 240tutoring.com and sign up for our MoGEA study guide.

You see, our study guides are filled with hundreds of pages of instructional content and hundreds of authentic practice questions that are going to walk you through the exact concepts we’re talking about in this video in much more depth and detail. And it takes you from knowing what’s on the test to knowing what you need to know to be successful on the test and equipping you with that information so that you can be successful when you take this test.

So, if at any point, you’re just overwhelmed or you want to save a lot of time and a lot of headaches, hop over to 240tutoring.com, get the Praxis Elementary Education 5001 study guide, and make sure you’re prepared today. 

Get the Study Guide

MoGEA: Writing

Overview

You will have 60 minutes to complete 1 written assignment.

The Writing subtest has 1 competency:

Here are some things to keep in mind while completing the writing portion of the MoGEA.

Helpful Hints

During the test, you will write an essay of 400-600 words. Your essay will be given a score between 1 and 4, with 4 being the best score. You’ll need to score at least a 3 to show that you have a general command of writing skills.

Your score will be based on 5 general criteria:

  1. Appropriateness: the extent to which your essay addresses the assignment
  2. Focus and Unity: the inclusion of a topic sentence and the ability to stay on topic
  3. Organization: effective and reasonable use of sentences and paragraphs
  4. Development: the extent to which you support ideas
  5. Grammar and Conventions: the extent to which your essay uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation

While writing, you will support claims by using evidence and appropriate vocabulary. You will need to use correct grammar, punctuation, and spelling and form a variety of sentence structures. Be sure to maintain a clear focus when writing and to use an effective topic sentence and strong conclusion.

Remember to address counterarguments to your ideas in order to strengthen your argument. Try to finish your essay with a few minutes left, and use that time to edit your work.

Getting the Help You Need

And if this seems like a lot of information, it’s because it is. This is a test that decides if you can teach the next generation of leaders. But if you’re feeling overwhelmed, don’t be.

Go to 240tutoring.com and sign up for our MoGEA study guide.

You see, our study guides are filled with hundreds of pages of instructional content and hundreds of authentic practice questions that are going to walk you through the exact concepts we’re talking about in this video in much more depth and detail. And it takes you from knowing what’s on the test to knowing what you need to know to be successful on the test and equipping you with that information so that you can be successful when you take this test.

So, if at any point, you’re just overwhelmed or you want to save a lot of time and a lot of headaches, hop over to 240tutoring.com, get the Praxis Elementary Education 5001 study guide, and make sure you’re prepared today. 

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